OSSSC Nursing Officer Practice Quiz 2026: 25 Important MCQs with Answers

Preparing for the OSSSC Nursing Officer examination requires more than simply reading nursing textbooks. Regular practice with multiple-choice questions helps you improve recall, identify weak areas, and become comfortable with the type of objective questions commonly used in competitive nursing examinations.

This OSSSC Nursing Officer Quiz contains 25 practice questions from important areas such as anatomy and physiology, pharmacology, nutrition, microbiology, community health nursing, medical-surgical nursing and basic nursing concepts. Each question has four options, the correct answer and a short explanation.

Try answering all 25 questions yourself before checking the answer and explanation. Treat the quiz like a mini mock test and note the questions you answered incorrectly. Revising those topics can make your preparation more targeted and effective.

Why Practice MCQs for OSSSC Nursing Officer Preparation?

MCQ practice is particularly useful for nursing recruitment examinations because it combines knowledge with speed and accuracy. A candidate may know the concept but still lose marks because of confusion between similar options.

Questions related to anatomy, physiology, pharmacology, infection control, nutrition and community health are important areas for nursing aspirants. Practicing questions from multiple subjects also helps develop better exam temperament.

How to Use This Nursing Officer Quiz

1. Attempt every question without looking at the answer.
2. Give yourself approximately 15–20 minutes for all 25 questions.
3. Calculate your score after completing the test.
4. Review every incorrect answer and revise the related concept.
5. Repeat the quiz later to check improvement.

OSSSC Nursing Officer Quiz: 25 Important MCQs

1. The longest bone in the human body is:

   • A) Femur
   • B) Humerus
   • C) Tibia
   • D) Fibula

   Correct Answer: A) Femur

   Explanation: The femur is the longest and strongest bone in the human body. It is located in the thigh and connects the hip joint with the knee.

2. The human skull consists of how many bones?

   • A) 14
   • B) 22
   • C) 12
   • D) 24

   Correct Answer: B) 22

   Explanation: The adult human skull is generally described as having 22 bones: 8 cranial bones and 14 facial bones.

3. Chyme is the semi-fluid material formed in the:

   • A) Mouth
   • B) Stomach
   • C) Large intestine
   • D) Rectum

   Correct Answer: B) Stomach

   Explanation: Chyme is the semi-fluid mixture of partially digested food and gastric secretions produced in the stomach.

4. Insulin is secreted by which cells of the pancreas?

   • A) Alpha cells
   • B) Beta cells
   • C) Gamma cells
   • D) Delta cells

   Correct Answer: B) Beta cells

   Explanation: Beta cells in the islets of Langerhans produce insulin, which helps regulate blood glucose levels.

5. Which artery primarily supplies blood to the head and neck?

   • A) Coronary artery
   • B) Carotid artery
   • C) Mesenteric artery
   • D) Intercostal artery

   Correct Answer: B) Carotid artery

   Explanation: The carotid arteries are major blood vessels supplying oxygenated blood to the brain, head and neck.

6. Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of smell?

   • A) Optic nerve
   • B) Oculomotor nerve
   • C) Olfactory nerve
   • D) Facial nerve

   Correct Answer: C) Olfactory nerve

   Explanation: The olfactory nerve is cranial nerve I and is responsible for the special sensory function of smell.

7. Drugs used primarily to relieve pain are called:

   • A) Anti-inflammatory drugs
   • B) Antipyretics
   • C) Antibiotics
   • D) Analgesics

   Correct Answer: D) Analgesics

   Explanation: Analgesics are medicines used to reduce or relieve pain. Some analgesics may also have antipyretic or anti-inflammatory effects.

8. Which enzyme helps in the digestion of fats?

   • A) Amylase
   • B) Lipase
   • C) Enterokinase
   • D) Trypsin

   Correct Answer: B) Lipase

   Explanation: Lipase breaks down dietary fats into smaller components, mainly fatty acids and glycerol or related products.

9. According to biomedical waste segregation guidelines, human anatomical waste such as body parts is disposed of in which colour-coded bag?

   • A) Yellow
   • B) Black
   • C) Red
   • D) Blue

   Correct Answer: A) Yellow

   Explanation: Human anatomical waste is categorized under biomedical waste requiring yellow-category handling and disposal as per applicable biomedical waste management rules.

10. The normal respiratory rate of a healthy adult at rest is approximately:

    • A) 5–10/minute
    • B) 10–15/minute
    • C) 15–20/minute
    • D) 20–30/minute

    Correct Answer: C) 15–20/minute

    Explanation: A commonly accepted normal resting respiratory rate for an adult is approximately 12–20 breaths per minute. Among the given options, 15–20 is the best answer.

11. Pathogens are:

    • A) Microorganisms that can cause disease
    • B) Organisms found only in animals
    • C) Organisms beneficial to humans
    • D) Organisms found only in plants

    Correct Answer: A) Microorganisms that can cause disease

    Explanation: A pathogen is a disease-causing biological agent, which may include bacteria, viruses, fungi, parasites and other infectious organisms.

12. Which source contains a particularly high concentration of vitamin D?

    • A) Milk
    • B) Eggs
    • C) Fish fat
    • D) Cod liver oil

    Correct Answer: D) Cod liver oil

    Explanation: Cod liver oil is a rich dietary source of vitamin D and is also known for its vitamin A content.

13. The Widal test is traditionally performed to help diagnose:

    • A) Typhoid fever
    • B) AIDS
    • C) Diarrhoea
    • D) Dysentery

    Correct Answer: A) Typhoid fever

    Explanation: The Widal test detects antibodies against Salmonella antigens and has traditionally been used as an aid in the diagnosis of enteric fever.

14. The most common side effect associated with IUCD insertion is:

    • A) Increased or irregular bleeding
    • B) Severe pain in every case
    • C) Pelvic infection in every case
    • D) Ectopic pregnancy

    Correct Answer: A) Increased or irregular bleeding

    Explanation: Changes in menstrual bleeding, including heavier or irregular bleeding, are common after insertion of a copper IUCD, particularly during the initial months.

15. Which hepatitis virus commonly spreads through the fecal-oral route?

    • A) Hepatitis A
    • B) Hepatitis B
    • C) Hepatitis C
    • D) Hepatitis D

    Correct Answer: A) Hepatitis A

    Explanation: Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted through ingestion of food or water contaminated with fecal matter.

16. Hemophilia A is caused by deficiency of:

    • A) Factor IX
    • B) Factor VIII
    • C) Factor XI
    • D) Von Willebrand factor

    Correct Answer: B) Factor VIII

    Explanation: Hemophilia A is an inherited bleeding disorder caused by deficiency or dysfunction of coagulation factor VIII. Hemophilia B involves factor IX deficiency.

17. Paracetamol is primarily classified as a:

    • A) Antipyretic
    • B) Antitussive
    • C) Antiasthmatic
    • D) Antiemetic

    Correct Answer: A) Antipyretic

    Explanation: Paracetamol is widely used as an analgesic and antipyretic. It reduces fever and provides relief from mild to moderate pain.

18. Asepsis means:

    • A) Freedom from infection or contamination by pathogens
    • B) Freedom from anxiety
    • C) Freedom from noise
    • D) Freedom from pain

    Correct Answer: A) Freedom from infection or contamination

    Explanation: Asepsis refers to practices and conditions designed to prevent contamination by pathogenic microorganisms and reduce the risk of infection.

19. Cyanosis is commonly associated with:

    • A) Lack of water
    • B) Lack of oxygen
    • C) Lack of glucose
    • D) Lack of blood

    Correct Answer: B) Lack of oxygen

    Explanation: Cyanosis is a bluish discoloration of the skin or mucous membranes associated with increased deoxygenated hemoglobin and may indicate inadequate oxygenation.

20. The term “mastication” means:

    • A) Digestion
    • B) Absorption
    • C) Assimilation
    • D) Chewing

    Correct Answer: D) Chewing

    Explanation: Mastication is the mechanical breakdown of food by chewing. It prepares food for swallowing and further digestion.

21. Deficiency of which vitamin is associated with nutritional osteomalacia and contributes to osteoporosis risk?

    • A) Vitamin A
    • B) Vitamin B
    • C) Vitamin C
    • D) Vitamin D

    Correct Answer: D) Vitamin D

    Explanation: Vitamin D is essential for calcium and phosphate metabolism and normal bone mineralization. Deficiency can cause osteomalacia and contribute to poor bone health.

22. The “anti-sterility vitamin” is:

    • A) Vitamin A
    • B) Vitamin E
    • C) Vitamin K
    • D) Vitamin D

    Correct Answer: B) Vitamin E

    Explanation: Vitamin E has historically been called the “anti-sterility vitamin” because of findings from early animal studies related to reproductive function.

23. Angular stomatitis is commonly associated with deficiency of:

    • A) Riboflavin
    • B) Thiamine
    • C) Pyridoxine
    • D) Iodine

    Correct Answer: A) Riboflavin

    Explanation: Riboflavin or vitamin B2 deficiency can produce lesions around the corners of the mouth, including angular cheilitis or stomatitis.

24. The Employees’ State Insurance (ESI) Act was enacted in:

    • A) 1938
    • B) 1948
    • C) 1958
    • D) 1968

    Correct Answer: B) 1948

    Explanation: The Employees’ State Insurance Act was enacted in 1948 to provide social security and health insurance-related benefits to eligible employees and their dependants.

25. Which of the following is NOT a standard component of oral rehydration solution (ORS)?

    • A) Sodium chloride
    • B) Calcium lactate
    • C) Potassium salt
    • D) Glucose

    Correct Answer: B) Calcium lactate

    Explanation: Standard ORS contains glucose and electrolytes such as sodium and potassium, along with a base such as citrate. Calcium lactate is not a standard ORS component.

Quick Answer Key

1-A | 2-B | 3-B | 4-B | 5-B | 6-C | 7-D | 8-B | 9-A | 10-C | 11-A | 12-D | 13-A | 14-A | 15-A | 16-B | 17-A | 18-A | 19-B | 20-D | 21-D | 22-B | 23-A | 24-B | 25-B

How to Improve Your OSSSC Nursing Officer Score

A good score comes from combining conceptual learning with repeated revision. Do not simply memorize the answer key. Understanding why an option is correct makes it easier to answer differently worded questions in the actual examination.

For anatomy and physiology, revise important structures, functions and normal values. For pharmacology, focus on drug classes, indications, adverse effects and nursing responsibilities. Community health nursing requires special attention to national health programmes, immunization, epidemiology, sanitation and health education.

Also maintain a small “mistake notebook”. Whenever you answer a question incorrectly, write the correct concept in one or two lines. Reviewing this notebook before a mock test can be more productive than repeatedly reading topics you already know.

Final Thoughts

This 25-question OSSSC Nursing Officer Practice Quiz is designed as a quick revision resource for nursing aspirants. It covers fundamental concepts that are useful for competitive nursing examinations and can help you identify areas requiring further study.

Remember that one quiz cannot replace comprehensive preparation. Use MCQs alongside your nursing textbooks, syllabus-based revision, previous examination analysis and full-length mock tests. Most importantly, focus on accuracy first and gradually improve your speed.

How many questions did you answer correctly out of 25? Share your score and challenge another nursing aspirant to beat it!

Disclaimer: This is an educational practice quiz created for exam preparation. Candidates should always verify recruitment rules, syllabus, examination pattern and official notifications from the relevant OSSSC authorities before making preparation or application decisions.