Showing posts with label Medical Surgical Nursing MCQs. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Medical Surgical Nursing MCQs. Show all posts

8/23/26

NORCET-11 Nursing Practice Quiz: 25 MCQs with Answer Key

🩺 NORCET‑11 Practice Quiz

25 multiple‑choice questions · Nursing fundamentals · Clinical reasoning

NORCET-11 nursing practice quiz with 25 multiple-choice questions covering pharmacology, surgical nursing, and infection control for AIIMS nursing officer exam preparation

📋 How to use: Read each stem carefully, select the best answer, then check your responses against the Answer Key at the bottom. Each correct choice carries +1 mark; there is no negative marking in this practice quiz.

Q1

A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed metformin. Which of the following is the most important nursing consideration regarding this medication?

✔ Metformin carries a risk of lactic acidosis in patients with renal dysfunction; renal function should be monitored.
Q2

A nurse is caring for a postoperative patient who develops sudden chest pain, dyspnoea, and tachycardia. Which condition should the nurse suspect first?

✔ Postoperative chest pain, dyspnoea, and tachycardia are classic signs of pulmonary embolism (PE) – a medical emergency.
Q3

Which of the following is the most reliable indicator of fluid volume deficit in an adult patient?

✔ Orthostatic changes in blood pressure and heart rate are objective, early signs of volume depletion.
Q4

A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which action is most critical to prevent a transfusion reaction?

✔ The two‑person verification of patient identity and blood product is the single most important safety step.
Q5

A patient on warfarin therapy has an INR of 5.2. Which nursing action is the highest priority?

✔ An INR >5.0 significantly increases bleeding risk; immediate assessment for haemorrhage is the priority.
Q6

A primigravida at 38 weeks gestation presents with contractions every 5 minutes. The fetal heart rate is 140 bpm with moderate variability. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

✔ In a term patient with regular contractions and a reassuring FHR, the priority is to determine labour progress via cervical assessment.
Q7

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient with heart failure. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

✔ Stopping diuretics when symptomatic is dangerous; they should never be discontinued without provider guidance.
Q8

Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with stage 2 pressure ulcer on the sacrum?

✔ Stage 2 ulcers require moist wound healing; saline cleansing + hydrocolloid / foam dressing is standard.
Q9

A patient is receiving digoxin for heart failure. Which electrolyte imbalance would most predispose this patient to digoxin toxicity?

✔ Hypokalaemia increases the binding of digoxin to cardiac sodium‑potassium pumps, precipitating toxicity.
Q10

A nurse is performing a neurological assessment on a patient who had a stroke. The patient can understand spoken language but cannot produce coherent speech. This finding is most consistent with:

✔ Broca's (expressive) aphasia is characterised by intact comprehension but difficulty producing speech.
Q11

A patient with chronic kidney disease has a serum creatinine of 4.2 mg/dL and a potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?

✔ A potassium of 6.8 with advanced CKD is life‑threatening; emergency dialysis is the definitive treatment.
Q12

A nurse is caring for a patient with a nasogastric (NG) tube for gastric decompression. Which assessment finding should be reported immediately?

✔ Coffee‑ground material indicates upper GI bleeding and requires immediate notification.
Q13

Which of the following is the most effective way to prevent ventilator‑associated pneumonia (VAP)?

✔ Head‑of‑bed elevation reduces aspiration risk – a cornerstone VAP prevention bundle element.
Q14

A nurse is assessing a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which finding is most characteristic of this condition?

✔ Kussmaul respirations and acetone breath are classic signs of metabolic acidosis in DKA.
Q15

A patient is prescribed 1,000 mL of normal saline over 8 hours. The drip factor is 15 drops/mL. What is the correct flow rate in drops per minute?

✔ Formula: (1000 mL × 15) ÷ (8 × 60) = 15000 ÷ 480 = 31.25 → 31 gtt/min.
Q16

A nurse is providing education to a patient with asthma about using a metered‑dose inhaler (MDI). Which step is essential for proper technique?

✔ Full exhalation prior to inhalation ensures optimal lung deposition; breath‑hold should be 5–10 seconds.
Q17

A patient with cirrhosis presents with ascites and peripheral oedema. Which dietary modification is most appropriate?

✔ Sodium restriction reduces fluid accumulation; protein should be adequate to prevent muscle wasting.
Q18

A nurse is caring for a patient who is 24 hours post‑thyroidectomy. Which sign would suggest hypocalcaemia?

✔ Chvostek's and Trousseau's are both signs of hypocalcaemia; Chvostek's is elicited by tapping the facial nerve.
Q19

Which of the following is a priority nursing intervention for a patient with acute pancreatitis?

✔ Resting the pancreas (NPO + IV hydration) is the cornerstone of acute pancreatitis management.
Q20

A nurse is assessing a patient's pain using the PQRST method. The "R" in PQRST stands for:

✔ PQRST: Provocation, Quality, Region/Radiation, Severity, Timing.
Q21

A patient with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted with confusion, ataxia, and nystagmus. Which vitamin deficiency is most likely?

✔ The triad of confusion, ataxia, and nystagmus is Wernicke's encephalopathy – caused by thiamine deficiency.
Q22

A nurse is preparing a patient for a colonoscopy. Which preparation instruction is correct?

✔ Clear liquids and bowel prep are standard for colonoscopy; coloured liquids (orange juice) are usually restricted.
Q23

A patient is receiving morphine via patient‑controlled analgesia (PCA). Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention?

✔ A respiratory rate of 8 is a sign of opioid‑induced respiratory depression – the priority intervention is to stimulate and consider naloxone.
Q24

A nurse is performing hand hygiene. Which of the following is the minimum recommended duration for washing with soap and water?

✔ CDC and WHO recommend 15–20 seconds of vigorous rubbing with soap and water.
Q25

A patient with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. Which baseline assessment is essential before starting therapy?

✔ Lithium is excreted renally and can cause thyroid dysfunction; baseline renal and thyroid function are mandatory.

📌 Answer Key

Q1 – B
Q2 – C
Q3 – C
Q4 – B
Q5 – C
Q6 – D
Q7 – C
Q8 – B
Q9 – B
Q10 – B
Q11 – B
Q12 – B
Q13 – A
Q14 – B
Q15 – B
Q16 – A
Q17 – C
Q18 – A
Q19 – A
Q20 – A
Q21 – C
Q22 – A
Q23 – B
Q24 – B
Q25 – B

📖 How to use this quiz & interpret your score

  • Self‑assessment: Attempt all 25 questions without referring to the answer key. Select the option you believe is most clinically appropriate.
  • Scoring: Give yourself +1 mark for every correct answer. There is no negative marking – this is a learning tool.
  • Interpretation:
    • 23–25 correct: Excellent – you have a strong command of nursing fundamentals.
    • 18–22 correct: Good – review the topics you missed to reinforce your knowledge.
    • <18 correct: Focused revision needed – use the answer key to identify weak areas and revisit core concepts.
  • Review: After checking your score, read the aria-describedby hints under each question to understand the clinical reasoning behind the correct answer.
  • Keep practising: Consistent quizzing is one of the most effective ways to solidify your preparation for NORCET‑11 and other nursing competitive exams.

© NORCET‑11 Practice Quiz · For educational & self‑assessment purposes only.

2/5/26

Medical-Surgical Nursing Quiz – 50 MCQs (With Answers)

This Medical-Surgical Nursing Quiz is designed for staff nurses, nursing students, and candidates preparing for competitive nursing exams like AIIMS, ESIC, NHM, and nursing exams. The questions are based on core concepts of Adult Health (Medical-Surgical) Nursing.


🩺 Medical-Surgical Nursing Quiz Questions – Part I

  1. Untreated glaucoma can ultimately lead to:
    • A. Conjunctivitis
    • B. Cataract
    • C. Blindness
    • D. Retinal detachment
  2. The most common site of pancreatic cancer is the:
    • A. Tail
    • B. Body
    • C. Head
    • D. Entire pancreas
  3. The earliest cardiac marker to rise after myocardial infarction is:
    • A. Troponin-T
    • B. CK-MB
    • C. LDH
    • D. Myoglobin
  4. The respiratory center is primarily stimulated by:
    • A. Oxygen
    • B. Carbon dioxide
    • C. Nitrogen
    • D. Bicarbonate
  5. The most common cause of chronic emphysema is:
    • A. Tuberculosis
    • B. Smoking
    • C. Asthma
    • D. Pneumonia
  6. A classic symptom of hiatal hernia is:
    • A. Dysphagia
    • B. Heartburn
    • C. Hematemesis
    • D. Abdominal distension
  7. The most common cancer among Indian women is:
    • A. Ovarian cancer
    • B. Breast cancer
    • C. Cervical cancer
    • D. Endometrial cancer
  8. Priority nursing management in the first 24 hours of severe burns is:
    • A. Pain control
    • B. Wound dressing
    • C. Fluid resuscitation
    • D. Antibiotic therapy
  9. The most serious complication of peritoneal dialysis is:
    • A. Hypotension
    • B. Electrolyte imbalance
    • C. Peritonitis
    • D. Constipation
  10. Bell’s palsy involves damage to which cranial nerve?
    • A. Fifth
    • B. Seventh
    • C. Ninth
    • D. Twelfth
  11. The temperature-regulating center of the body is located in the:
    • A. Thalamus
    • B. Cerebellum
    • C. Hypothalamus
    • D. Medulla
  12. The most common renal calculi are composed of:
    • A. Uric acid
    • B. Calcium oxalate
    • C. Phosphate
    • D. Cystine
  13. Peptic ulcers most commonly occur in the:
    • A. Stomach fundus
    • B. Esophagus
    • C. Duodenum
    • D. Ileum
  14. The most common type of skin cancer is:
    • A. Malignant melanoma
    • B. Squamous cell carcinoma
    • C. Basal cell carcinoma
    • D. Kaposi’s sarcoma
  15. Murphy’s sign is positive in:
    • A. Appendicitis
    • B. Cholecystitis
    • C. Pancreatitis
    • D. Hepatitis
  16. Kussmaul breathing is seen in:
    • A. Asthma
    • B. Diabetic ketoacidosis
    • C. Pneumonia
    • D. Heart failure
  17. The Glasgow Coma Scale maximum score is:
    • A. 10
    • B. 12
    • C. 15
    • D. 18
  18. Rheumatoid arthritis is a:
    • A. Degenerative disease
    • B. Autoimmune disorder
    • C. Metabolic disorder
    • D. Infectious disease
  19. The antidote for heparin is:
    • A. Vitamin K
    • B. Protamine sulfate
    • C. Naloxone
    • D. Atropine
  20. The primary goal of medical-surgical nursing is to:
    • A. Cure disease
    • B. Prevent complications
    • C. Promote recovery and quality of life
    • D. Administer medications

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✅ Answer Key – Part I

  1. C
  2. C
  3. D
  4. B
  5. B
  6. B
  7. C
  8. C
  9. C
  10. B
  11. C
  12. B
  13. C
  14. C
  15. B
  16. B
  17. C
  18. B
  19. B
  20. C

Medical-Surgical Nursing Quiz – Part II

  1. Left ventricular failure commonly causes:
    • A. Pedal edema
    • B. Ascites
    • C. Pulmonary congestion
    • D. Hepatomegaly
  2. Normal arterial blood pH is:
    • A. 7.10–7.20
    • B. 7.25–7.30
    • C. 7.35–7.45
    • D. 7.50–7.60
  3. Barrel chest is seen in:
    • A. Asthma
    • B. Pneumonia
    • C. COPD
    • D. Tuberculosis
  4. Most common cause of peptic ulcer disease:
    • A. Stress
    • B. Alcohol
    • C. H. pylori
    • D. Smoking
  5. Early sign of hypoxia is:
    • A. Cyanosis
    • B. Restlessness
    • C. Bradycardia
    • D. Hypotension
  6. Pink frothy sputum indicates:
    • A. Asthma
    • B. Pulmonary edema
    • C. TB
    • D. Bronchitis
  7. Orthopnea is relieved by:
    • A. Lying flat
    • B. Sitting upright
    • C. Prone position
    • D. Trendelenburg
  8. Most common arrhythmia after MI:
    • A. AF
    • B. VT
    • C. VF
    • D. PVC
  9. Portal hypertension leads to:
    • A. Jaundice
    • B. Ascites
    • C. Diarrhea
    • D. Constipation
  10. Appendicitis pain begins in:
    • A. RLQ
    • B. Epigastrium
    • C. Umbilicus
    • D. LLQ

Answers:– Part II 1-C, 2-C, 3-C, 4-C, 5-B, 6-B, 7-B, 8-D, 9-B, 10-C


Medical-Surgical Nursing Quiz – Part III

  1. Most common cause of CKD:
    • A. Hypertension
    • B. Diabetes mellitus
    • C. Stones
    • D. Infection
  2. Facial droop and slurred speech indicate:
    • A. MI
    • B. Stroke
    • C. Epilepsy
    • D. Hypoglycemia
  3. Kussmaul breathing occurs in:
    • A. Asthma
    • B. DKA
    • C. Pneumonia
    • D. CHF
  4. Insulin is secreted by:
    • A. Alpha cells
    • B. Beta cells
    • C. Delta cells
    • D. Acinar cells
  5. Parkinson’s disease is due to lack of:
    • A. Serotonin
    • B. Dopamine
    • C. GABA
    • D. Acetylcholine
  6. Normal GCS score:
    • A. 10
    • B. 12
    • C. 15
    • D. 18
  7. Polyuria means urine output more than:
    • A. 1500 ml
    • B. 2000 ml
    • C. 2500 ml
    • D. 3000 ml
  8. Bone metastasis usually causes:
    • A. Fever
    • B. Pain
    • C. Infection
    • D. Bleeding
  9. Trousseau’s sign indicates:
    • A. Hyperkalemia
    • B. Hypocalcemia
    • C. Hypernatremia
    • D. Hypoglycemia
  10. Antidote for heparin is:
    • A. Vitamin K
    • B. Protamine sulfate
    • C. Naloxone
    • D. Atropine

Answers:– Part III 1-B, 2-B, 3-B, 4-B, 5-B, 6-C, 7-C, 8-B, 9-B, 10-B


Note: This quiz is useful for Staff Nurse exams, AIIMS, ESIC, DSSSB, NHM, Railway, and other nursing competitive examinations.

10/28/25

Staff Nurse MCQ Quiz 2025 - 100 Nursing MCQs with Answers (Interactive)

Staff Nurse MCQ Quiz 2025 — 100+ Nursing MCQs with Answers & Interactive Quiz

Why use this interactive MCQ quiz?

This 100+ MCQ interactive quiz helps you evaluate your readiness for major nursing exams (AIIMS NORCET, RRB, ESIC, NHM, State PSCs). Attempt questions, submit answers, and instantly see your score. Each question also shows the correct answer so you can quickly revise weak topics.

Staff Nurse MCQs interactive quiz for AIIMS, RRB, ESIC and NHM exam preparation

How to use

  1. Select one answer per question.
  2. When finished, click Check My Score.
  3. Your score, percentage and missed questions with correct answers will display.
  4. Retry anytime - the quiz resets automatically.

Section A - Fundamentals, Anatomy, Pharmacology, Medical-Surgical, Obs & Paediatrics (Q1–Q35)

  1. Q1. The process of washing hands before and after patient care is known as?



  2. Q2. Normal body temperature in Celsius is:



  3. Q3. Which pulse site is commonly used in emergencies?



  4. Q4. The normal respiratory rate for adults per minute is:



  5. Q5. Fowler’s position is used to:



  6. Q6. The largest organ in the human body is:



  7. Q7. The functional unit of the kidney is called:



  8. Q8. The heart is enclosed within:



  9. Q9. The normal cardiac output per minute is approximately:



  10. Q10. The part of the brain responsible for balance and coordination is:



  11. Q11. Drug that reduces pain is called:



  12. Q12. Digoxin is used in the treatment of:



  13. Q13. Vitamin K is essential for:



  14. Q14. The route of drug administration with the fastest effect is:



  15. Q15. The antidote for morphine poisoning is:



  16. Q16. The normal blood pressure range for adults is:



  17. Q17. Appendicitis is inflammation of:



  18. Q18. The first sign of hypoglycemia is:



  19. Q19. Common symptom of myocardial infarction is:



  20. Q20. Normal blood glucose level (fasting) is:



  21. Q21. The normal duration of pregnancy is:



  22. Q22. The first stage of labor ends with:



  23. Q23. Colostrum is rich in:



  24. Q24. Average fetal heart rate per minute is:



  25. Q25. Best position for pregnant women with hypertension is:



  26. Q26. The first vaccine given to a newborn is:



  27. Q27. The weight of a healthy newborn is:



  28. Q28. The APGAR score is taken at:



  29. Q29. The first tooth appears at:



  30. Q30. Exclusive breastfeeding is recommended for:



  31. Q31. The full form of PHC is:



  32. Q32. The normal growth chart used in India is called:



  33. Q33. Vitamin A deficiency causes:



  34. Q34. DOTS strategy is related to:



  35. Q35. Pulse Polio Programme was launched in:




Section B - Advanced & High-Yield Topics (Q36–Q100)

  1. Q36. Standard precaution that prevents blood-borne infection transmission is:



  2. Q37. Normal hemoglobin range for adult female (g/dL) is approximately:



  3. Q38. The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses:



  4. Q39. Best method to prevent pressure ulcers is:



  5. Q40. Aseptic technique is essential for:



  6. Q41. Normal serum sodium level (mEq/L) is approximately:



  7. Q42. Shock presenting with warm extremities and bounding pulses is most likely:



  8. Q43. The drug class that lowers cholesterol by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase is:



  9. Q44. Which is a sign of hypovolemic shock?



  10. Q45. First action for a choking adult with severe airway obstruction is:



  11. Q46. A sterile field is considered contaminated if:



  12. Q47. Antiseptic commonly used for skin preparation before injection is:



  13. Q48. The normal platelet count (per microliter) is approximately:



  14. Q49. Ryles tube is used for:



  15. Q50. Preferred site for intramuscular injection in adults is:



  16. Q51. TB is primarily spread by:



  17. Q52. The enzyme elevated in acute myocardial infarction is:



  18. Q53. A sign of hypokalemia includes:



  19. Q54. Best immediate care for deep partial-thickness burn is:



  20. Q55. The most common site for pressure ulcer in supine patient is:



  21. Q56. The correct order for CPR (adults) is:



  22. Q57. NGT placement is confirmed by:



  23. Q58. The recommended IV fluid for initial resuscitation in hypovolemic shock is:



  24. Q59. Which vitamin deficiency causes scurvy?



  25. Q60. The most reliable sign of dehydration in infants is:



  26. Q61. The antidote for acetaminophen (paracetamol) overdose is:



  27. Q62. In case of needlestick injury, first action is:



  28. Q63. Food recommended for iron absorption is high in:



  29. Q64. The best glucose source for unconscious hypoglycemic patient is:



  30. Q65. Oxygen therapy in COPD should be:



  31. Q66. Common cause of nosocomial UTI is:



  32. Q67. Normal respiratory rate for neonate is approximately:



  33. Q68. Proper storage temperature for vaccines is usually:



  34. Q69. Pain scale most used in children is:



  35. Q70. Best prevention for spread of influenza is:



  36. Q71. The most common electrolyte disturbance in vomiting is:



  37. Q72. Preferred hand hygiene method when hands not visibly soiled is:



  38. Q73. Correct storage for insulin vials is:



  39. Q74. Who supervises nursing ethics and professional conduct?



  40. Q75. Aseptic technique for wound dressing includes:



  41. Q76. Most reliable indicator of adequate oxygenation is:



  42. Q77. When documenting, the best practice is to:



  43. Q78. Preferred site for IM injection in infants is:



  44. Q79. The normal fasting blood glucose cutoff for diabetes diagnosis (mg/dL) is:



  45. Q80. Seizure first aid includes:



  46. Q81. Best method to prevent catheter-associated UTI is:



  47. Q82. The most common cause of hospital-acquired pneumonia is:



  48. Q83. A Glasgow coma scale score of 15 indicates:



  49. Q84. For suspected stroke, the priority is:



  50. Q85. Appropriate PPE when caring for pulmonary TB patient is:



  51. Q86. Most accurate way to measure core body temperature is:



  52. Q87. A common side effect of opioid analgesics is:



  53. Q88. The chain of infection includes reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry and:



  54. Q89. The correct angle for subcutaneous injection is:



  55. Q90. Position for lumbar puncture is:



  56. Q91. Best test to confirm diabetes is:



  57. Q92. Eye drops administration for glaucoma should be timed at least how long between different eye drops?



  58. Q93. Most effective contraception method for preventing pregnancy is:



  59. Q94. A common sign of wound infection is:



  60. Q95. Most appropriate nursing response to patient with chest pain is:



  61. Q96. Which organ is mainly affected by hepatitis B?



  62. Q97. The most common bacteria causing surgical site infection is:



  63. Q98. In case of suspected opioid overdose, check for:



  64. Q99. The ideal time to perform hand hygiene in patient care is:



  65. Q100. The best immediate action for anaphylaxis is:




FAQs

  • Q: How many MCQs should I practice daily?
    A: Aim for 50 questions daily (mix new + revision).
  • Q: Will these questions appear in AIIMS/ESIC exams?
    A: These cover high-yield topics; question styles match CBT formats but aren't exact reproductions.
  • Q: Can I use this quiz on mobile?
    A: Yes — the quiz is responsive with simple HTML controls.
  • Q: Do you provide explanations?
    A: Correct answers are shown; for deep explanations, keep a revision log and consult recommended textbooks.

Conclusion

This interactive 100+ MCQ set will strengthen your exam readiness. Use timed mock sessions, review missed questions, and repeat until you achieve consistent high scores. Combine this practice with standard textbooks (Brunner & Suddarth, Dutta’s Obstetrics, Lippincott Pharmacology) and regular mock tests.


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