OSSSC Nursing Officer 2026 MCQs | Anatomy, Physiology & Microbiology

Are you preparing for the OSSSC Nursing Officer 2026 exam? The Odisha Sub-Ordinate Staff Selection Commission has announced 5,989 Nursing Officer vacancies, and competition is intense. With a 100-question MCQ paper covering GNM/B.Sc. Nursing subjects, Practical Nursing Skills, Arithmetic, and English, you need focused in practice.

This comprehensive quiz features 50 medical-surgical nursing MCQs covering cardiovascular, respiratory, endocrine, gastrointestinal, renal, neurological, and musculoskeletal systems. Each question includes four answer options, the correct answer, and a concise rationale. These questions are aligned with the OSSSC Nursing Officer syllabus 2026 and are also ideal for NCLEX-RN, HESI, and other staff nurse exams.

If you are looking for Anatomy, Physiology & Microbiology MCQs for OSSSC Nursing Officer 2026, our YouTube video covers those topics in depth. This blog post complements that video with a broader medical-surgical nursing question bank to strengthen your clinical judgment and exam technique.

Cardiovascular Nursing MCQs (1-10)

Question 1

A patient is admitted with acute decompensated heart failure. Which assessment finding requires immediate nursing intervention?

• A. Bibasilar crackles
• B. Weight gain of 1 kg over 24 hours
• C. Pink frothy sputum
• D. Peripheral edema

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Pink frothy sputum indicates acute pulmonary edema, a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate oxygen and diuretic therapy. Bibasilar crackles and peripheral edema are common in heart failure but are less acutely dangerous. Weight gain of 1 kg over 24 hours is concerning but not an immediate emergency.

Question 2

Which laboratory test is the most specific and sensitive cardiac marker for diagnosing an acute myocardial infarction?

• A. Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB)
• B. Myoglobin
• C. Troponin I
• D. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Troponin I is the most cardiac-specific biomarker, rising within 3–6 hours and remaining elevated for 7–10 days. CK-MB is less specific and can be elevated in skeletal muscle injury. Myoglobin rises early but is not cardiac-specific. LDH is outdated and lacks specificity.

Question 3

A patient on digoxin therapy reports nausea, vomiting, and visual changes. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer the next dose as prescribed
• B. Check the serum digoxin level and hold the dose
• C. Encourage the patient to eat a low-potassium diet
• D. Document the findings and continue monitoring

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbances (e.g., yellow-green halos) are classic signs of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should hold the dose and obtain a serum digoxin level. Administering the next dose could worsen toxicity. Low potassium increases the risk of toxicity, so a low-potassium diet is inappropriate. Documentation alone does not address the acute risk.

Question 4

Which ECG finding is characteristic of a STEMI?

• A. ST-segment depression
• B. T-wave inversion
• C. ST-segment elevation
• D. Prolonged QT interval

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: ST-segment elevation is the hallmark ECG finding of a STEMI, indicating full-thickness myocardial injury. ST depression and T-wave inversion are more typical of ischemia or NSTEMI. A prolonged QT interval is associated with electrolyte imbalances and arrhythmia risk, not STEMI.

Question 5

A patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include?

• A. "Increase your intake of green leafy vegetables."
• B. "Take aspirin for headaches without concern."
• C. "Use a soft toothbrush and electric razor."
• D. "Double your dose if you miss a day."

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Warfarin increases bleeding risk, so the patient should use a soft toothbrush and electric razor to prevent injury. Vitamin K–rich foods (green leafy vegetables) should be kept consistent, not increased. Aspirin increases bleeding risk and should be avoided unless prescribed. Doubling a missed dose can cause dangerous over-anticoagulation.

Question 6

Which position is most appropriate for a patient experiencing an acute myocardial infarction?

• A. Supine
• B. Semi-Fowler's
• C. Trendelenburg
• D. Prone

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Semi-Fowler's position reduces cardiac workload and improves oxygenation by facilitating lung expansion. Supine and Trendelenburg positions increase venous return and cardiac workload. Prone is contraindicated in an acute cardiac event.

Question 7

A patient is receiving heparin via continuous IV infusion. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate therapeutic effectiveness?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Bleeding time

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: aPTT is used to monitor unfractionated heparin therapy, with a therapeutic range typically 1.5–2.5 times the control. PT and INR monitor warfarin therapy. Bleeding time is not used for heparin monitoring.

Question 8

Which finding indicates a complication of a cardiac catheterization?

• A. Slight bruising at the insertion site
• B. Diminished pedal pulse on the affected side
• C. Mild discomfort at the puncture site
• D. Warm, dry skin on the affected extremity

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: A diminished pedal pulse suggests arterial occlusion or hematoma formation, a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. Slight bruising and mild discomfort are expected. Warm, dry skin is a normal finding; cool, pale, or mottled skin would be concerning.

Question 9

A patient with hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: Thiazide diuretics cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. They may also cause hyponatremia, but hypokalemia is the most common and clinically significant electrolyte disturbance. Hyperkalemia and hypercalcemia are not typical with thiazide use.

Question 10

Which intervention is the priority for a patient with a suspected abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) who reports sudden severe back pain?

• A. Administer pain medication as prescribed
• B. Prepare the patient for immediate surgery
• C. Apply a heating pad to the back
• D. Encourage ambulation to relieve pain

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Sudden severe back pain in a patient with a known or suspected AAA indicates possible rupture, a surgical emergency. Pain medication may mask symptoms and delay definitive treatment. Heating pads and ambulation are contraindicated in a potential rupture.

Respiratory Nursing MCQs (11-20)

Question 11

A patient with COPD is receiving oxygen therapy. Which oxygen delivery method is safest?

• A. Nasal cannula at 6 L/min
• B. Simple face mask at 8 L/min
• C. Venturi mask at 2 L/min
• D. Non-rebreather mask at 10 L/min

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: A Venturi mask delivers precise low-flow oxygen concentrations (24%–50%), making it the safest choice for COPD patients who may have carbon dioxide retention. Nasal cannula at 6 L/min, simple face mask at 8 L/min, and non-rebreather at 10 L/min deliver higher oxygen concentrations that can suppress respiratory drive in COPD patients.

Question 12

Which assessment finding is most indicative of a tension pneumothorax?

• A. Tracheal deviation toward the affected side
• B. Tracheal deviation away from the affected side
• C. Bilateral crackles
• D. Bradypnea

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: In tension pneumothorax, air accumulates in the pleural space, pushing mediastinal structures (including the trachea) away from the affected side. Tracheal deviation toward the affected side occurs in atelectasis. Bilateral crackles suggest fluid overload or pneumonia. Bradypnea is nonspecific.

Question 13

A patient is scheduled for a thoracentesis. Which position is most appropriate?

• A. Supine with arms at sides
• B. Sitting upright, leaning over a bedside table
• C. Prone with arms extended
• D. Trendelenburg

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: The sitting upright, leaning-over position widens the intercostal spaces and allows gravity to pool fluid at the base of the lung, making thoracentesis safer and more effective. Supine, prone, and Trendelenburg positions do not optimize access to the pleural space.

Question 14

Which arterial blood gas (ABG) value indicates respiratory acidosis?

• A. pH 7.48, PaCO₂ 30 mm Hg
• B. pH 7.32, PaCO₂ 50 mm Hg
• C. pH 7.50, HCO₃^– 32 mEq/L
• D. pH 7.30, HCO₃^– 18 mEq/L

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Respiratory acidosis is characterized by a low pH (<7.35) and elevated PaCO₂ (>45 mm Hg). Option A shows respiratory alkalosis. Option C shows metabolic alkalosis. Option D shows metabolic acidosis.

Question 15

A patient with pneumonia has a productive cough. Which nursing intervention is most effective for promoting airway clearance?

• A. Administer a cough suppressant
• B. Encourage incentive spirometry every 2 hours
• C. Restrict fluid intake
• D. Position the patient supine

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Incentive spirometry encourages deep breathing and helps mobilize secretions. Cough suppressants are contraindicated when secretions need to be cleared. Restricting fluids thickens secretions. Supine positioning impairs lung expansion and secretion clearance.

Question 16

Which finding indicates a possible pulmonary embolism?

• A. Bradycardia and hypertension
• B. Sudden pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea
• C. Productive cough with yellow sputum
• D. Gradual onset of peripheral edema

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Pulmonary embolism typically presents with sudden pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea, and tachycardia. Bradycardia and hypertension are not typical. Productive cough with yellow sputum suggests pneumonia. Gradual peripheral edema suggests heart failure or venous insufficiency.

Question 17

A patient is receiving mechanical ventilation. Which nursing action is priority to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)?

• A. Keep the head of the bed elevated at 30–45 degrees
• B. Suction the airway every hour
• C. Change the ventilator circuit daily
• D. Administer prophylactic antibiotics

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: Elevating the head of the bed 30–45 degrees reduces aspiration risk, a key VAP prevention strategy. Routine hourly suctioning is not recommended and can cause mucosal trauma. Circuit changes are not performed daily. Prophylactic antibiotics are not standard VAP prevention.

Question 18

Which breath sound is expected in a patient with asthma exacerbation?

• A. Fine crackles
• B. Wheezing
• C. Pleural friction rub
• D. Bronchial breath sounds

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Wheezing is the hallmark of asthma exacerbation due to bronchoconstriction and narrowed airways. Fine crackles suggest fluid in alveoli (e.g., heart failure). Pleural friction rub indicates pleural inflammation. Bronchial breath sounds over peripheral lung fields suggest consolidation.

Question 19

A patient is prescribed a bronchodilator inhaler and a corticosteroid inhaler. Which instruction is correct?

• A. Use the corticosteroid first, then the bronchodilator
• B. Use the bronchodilator first, then wait 5 minutes, then use the corticosteroid
• C. Use both inhalers simultaneously
• D. Use the corticosteroid only when symptoms occur

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: The bronchodilator should be used first to open airways, allowing the corticosteroid to reach deeper lung tissue. Waiting 5 minutes between inhalers improves absorption. Using both simultaneously is ineffective. Corticosteroids are controller medications, not rescue inhalers.

Question 20

Which intervention is most appropriate for a patient with a chest tube?

• A. Clamp the tube when the patient ambulates
• B. Keep the drainage system below chest level
• C. Strip the chest tube every 2 hours
• D. Elevate the drainage system above the patient's chest

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Keeping the drainage system below chest level prevents backflow of fluid into the pleural space. Clamping the tube during ambulation is unsafe unless ordered. Stripping chest tubes is no longer recommended. Elevating the system above chest level would cause fluid to flow back into the pleural cavity.

Endocrine Nursing MCQs (21-30)

Question 21

A patient with type 1 diabetes presents with blood glucose of 480 mg/dL, pH 7.25, and positive serum ketones. Which intervention is priority?

• A. Administer subcutaneous insulin
• B. Administer IV fluids and IV insulin
• C. Encourage oral fluid intake
• D. Give a potassium supplement

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: The patient is in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), requiring aggressive IV fluid resuscitation and IV insulin infusion. Subcutaneous insulin is not appropriate for DKA. Oral fluids are insufficient. Potassium may be needed later but is not the initial priority.

Question 22

Which finding is an early sign of hypoglycemia?

• A. Polyuria
• B. Diaphoresis and tremors
• C. Kussmaul respirations
• D. Fruity breath odor

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Diaphoresis, tremors, and tachycardia are early autonomic signs of hypoglycemia. Polyuria, Kussmaul respirations, and fruity breath odor are signs of hyperglycemia and DKA.

Question 23

A patient with hypothyroidism is prescribed levothyroxine. Which instruction is most important?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime
• B. Take the medication on an empty stomach 30–60 minutes before breakfast
• C. Take the medication with calcium supplements
• D. Double the dose if a dose is missed

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach for optimal absorption. Bedtime dosing may reduce absorption. Calcium interferes with levothyroxine absorption. Doubling a missed dose can cause thyrotoxicosis.

Question 24

Which assessment finding is expected in a patient with Cushing's syndrome?

• A. Hypotension and weight loss
• B. Hyperkalemia and hyponatremia
• C. Moon face and truncal obesity
• D. Muscle wasting and thin extremities

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Cushing's syndrome is characterized by cortisol excess, causing moon face, truncal obesity, and a buffalo hump. Hypotension, weight loss, hyperkalemia, and hyponatremia are features of Addison's disease. Muscle wasting can occur but is not the defining feature.

Question 25

A patient with Addison's disease is at risk for which life-threatening complication?

• A. Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state
• B. Adrenal crisis
• C. Thyroid storm
• D. Pheochromocytoma

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Addison's disease (adrenal insufficiency) can lead to adrenal crisis, characterized by severe hypotension, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and hypoglycemia. Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state is associated with type 2 diabetes. Thyroid storm occurs in hyperthyroidism. Pheochromocytoma is a tumor of the adrenal medulla.

Question 26

Which medication is used to treat thyroid storm?

• A. Levothyroxine
• B. Propylthiouracil (PTU)
• C. Insulin
• D. Hydrocortisone

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: PTU inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis and is a first-line treatment for thyroid storm. Levothyroxine would worsen the condition. Insulin is used for hyperglycemia. Hydrocortisone may be used adjunctively but is not the primary treatment.

Question 27

A patient with diabetes insipidus is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypocalcemia
• D. Hyperphosphatemia

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Diabetes insipidus causes excessive water loss, leading to hypernatremia and hyperosmolality. Hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia, and hyperphosphatemia are not typically associated with diabetes insipidus.

Question 28

Which finding indicates a complication of insulin therapy?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Lipodystrophy at injection sites
• C. Increased appetite
• D. Polyuria

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Lipodystrophy (hypertrophy or atrophy of subcutaneous fat) is a common complication of repeated insulin injections at the same site. Weight gain and increased appetite can occur with insulin therapy but are not complications. Polyuria suggests hyperglycemia, not a direct complication of insulin.

Question 29

A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. Which instruction is most important?

• A. "Take this medication with food."
• B. "Take this medication on an empty stomach."
• C. "Avoid alcohol while taking this medication."
• D. "Monitor your blood glucose only once a week."

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Metformin carries a risk of lactic acidosis, which is increased by alcohol consumption. Taking it with food reduces gastrointestinal upset. Blood glucose should be monitored more frequently than once a week. Taking it on an empty stomach is not required.

Question 30

Which patient is at highest risk for developing type 2 diabetes?

• A. A 25-year-old with a BMI of 22
• B. A 50-year-old with a family history of diabetes and a BMI of 32
• C. A 30-year-old with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) and a BMI of 24
• D. A 45-year-old with hypertension and a BMI of 26

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Risk factors for type 2 diabetes include age >45, family history, and obesity (BMI ≥30). The 50-year-old with a family history and BMI of 32 has the highest risk. The other patients have some risk factors but fewer or less significant ones.

Gastrointestinal & Renal Nursing MCQs (31-40)

Question 31

A patient with cirrhosis is at risk for which complication?

• A. Hyperalbuminemia
• B. Esophageal varices
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Polycythemia

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Portal hypertension in cirrhosis leads to esophageal varices, which can hemorrhage. Cirrhosis causes hypoalbuminemia, not hyperalbuminemia. Hyperkalemia can occur but is not the primary concern. Polycythemia is not associated with cirrhosis.

Question 32

Which finding is a classic sign of appendicitis?

• A. Murphy's sign
• B. McBurney's point tenderness
• C. Cullen's sign
• D. Grey Turner's sign

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: McBurney's point tenderness (right lower quadrant) is the classic sign of appendicitis. Murphy's sign is associated with cholecystitis. Cullen's and Grey Turner's signs are associated with pancreatitis.

Question 33

A patient is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which bowel preparation instruction is correct?

• A. Eat a low-fiber diet for 3 days before the procedure
• B. Drink only clear liquids the day before the procedure
• C. Take iron supplements the night before
• D. Avoid all fluids for 24 hours before the procedure

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: A clear liquid diet the day before colonoscopy is standard to ensure adequate bowel visualization. A low-fiber diet may be recommended but is not the primary preparation. Iron supplements should be avoided as they darken stool. Avoiding all fluids is unsafe and unnecessary.

Question 34

Which laboratory value is most important to monitor in a patient with acute pancreatitis?

• A. Serum amylase
• B. Serum lipase
• C. Blood glucose
• D. Serum calcium

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: Hypocalcemia is a serious complication of acute pancreatitis and can cause tetany, seizures, and arrhythmias. While amylase and lipase are diagnostic, calcium monitoring is critical for detecting and managing this complication. Blood glucose can be elevated but is less acutely dangerous.

Question 35

A patient with a new ileostomy should be taught to monitor for which sign of obstruction?

• A. Increased stool output
• B. Absence of stool output and abdominal distension
• C. Weight gain
• D. Diarrhea

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Absence of stool output and abdominal distension are signs of ileostomy obstruction. Increased stool output and diarrhea suggest excessive output, not obstruction. Weight gain is not typically associated with obstruction.

Question 36

Which intervention is priority for a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) and hyperkalemia?

• A. Administer a potassium-sparing diuretic
• B. Administer calcium gluconate and insulin with glucose
• C. Restrict fluid intake
• D. Increase dietary potassium

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Hyperkalemia in AKI is life-threatening and requires immediate treatment. Calcium gluconate stabilizes cardiac membranes, while insulin with glucose shifts potassium into cells. Potassium-sparing diuretics would worsen hyperkalemia. Fluid restriction is important but not the immediate priority. Increasing dietary potassium is contraindicated.

Question 37

A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is prescribed erythropoietin. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
• C. Serum calcium
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production, so hemoglobin and hematocrit should be monitored to evaluate effectiveness. Potassium, calcium, and BUN are important in CKD but are not directly related to erythropoietin therapy.

Question 38

Which finding indicates a urinary tract infection (UTI) in an older adult?

• A. Polyuria
• B. Confusion and altered mental status
• C. Weight gain
• D. Bradycardia

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Older adults with UTI often present with confusion, agitation, or altered mental status rather than classic urinary symptoms. Polyuria, weight gain, and bradycardia are not typical UTI signs in this population.

Question 39

A patient is receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which finding indicates peritonitis?

• A. Clear dialysate return
• B. Cloudy dialysate return and abdominal pain
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Weight loss

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Cloudy dialysate return and abdominal pain are classic signs of peritonitis, a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis. Clear dialysate is normal. Increased urine output and weight loss are not indicative of peritonitis.

Question 40

Which dietary instruction is appropriate for a patient with chronic kidney disease?

• A. High-protein diet
• B. Low-sodium, low-potassium, low-phosphorus diet
• C. High-potassium diet
• D. High-phosphorus diet

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Patients with CKD require dietary restriction of sodium, potassium, and phosphorus to prevent fluid overload and electrolyte imbalances. A high-protein diet may be recommended for dialysis patients but not for all CKD patients. High-potassium and high-phosphorus diets are contraindicated.

Neurological & Musculoskeletal Nursing MCQs (41-50)

Question 41

A patient with a suspected stroke has a blood glucose of 45 mg/dL. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer IV glucose
• B. Prepare for a CT scan
• C. Administer a thrombolytic
• D. Document the finding

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: Hypoglycemia can mimic stroke symptoms and must be corrected immediately. IV glucose should be administered before further diagnostic testing. A CT scan is necessary but not before correcting hypoglycemia. Thrombolytics are contraindicated in hypoglycemia. Documentation alone is insufficient.

Question 42

Which finding is an early sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

• A. Decreased level of consciousness
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Widened pulse pressure
• D. Irregular respirations

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: A decreased level of consciousness is the earliest and most sensitive indicator of increased ICP. Bradycardia, widened pulse pressure, and irregular respirations (Cushing's triad) are late signs.

Question 43

A patient with a spinal cord injury at T6 suddenly develops severe hypertension, bradycardia, and profuse sweating. Which action is priority?

• A. Administer an antihypertensive
• B. Check for a full bladder
• C. Elevate the head of the bed
• D. Administer atropine

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: The patient is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia, most commonly triggered by a full bladder. The priority is to identify and remove the trigger. Antihypertensives may be used if the trigger cannot be removed. Elevating the head of the bed and atropine are not first-line interventions.

Question 44

Which intervention is appropriate for a patient with a fractured hip?

• A. Encourage ambulation without assistance
• B. Apply traction as prescribed
• C. Massage the affected leg
• D. Place the patient in a supine position with the leg extended

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Traction may be applied to stabilize a hip fracture and reduce pain. Ambulation without assistance is unsafe. Massaging the affected leg could dislodge a clot. Supine positioning with leg extension may increase pain and displacement.

Question 45

A patient is at risk for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) after surgery. Which intervention is most effective for prevention?

• A. Bed rest
• B. Early ambulation and pneumatic compression devices
• C. Massaging the legs
• D. Applying warm compresses to the legs

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Early ambulation and pneumatic compression devices promote venous return and prevent stasis. Bed rest increases DVT risk. Massaging the legs could dislodge a clot. Warm compresses do not prevent DVT.

Question 46

Which finding indicates compartment syndrome?

• A. Warm, pink extremity
• B. Severe pain unrelieved by medication and pulselessness
• C. Improved sensation
• D. Decreased pain with elevation

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Compartment syndrome is characterized by severe pain unrelieved by medication, pulselessness, pallor, paresthesia, and paralysis. A warm, pink extremity is normal. Improved sensation and decreased pain with elevation are not signs of compartment syndrome.

Question 47

A patient with Parkinson's disease is prescribed levodopa-carbidopa. Which instruction is most important?

• A. "Take this medication with a high-protein meal."
• B. "Take this medication on an empty stomach."
• C. "Stop the medication if you feel dizzy."
• D. "Double the dose if you miss one."

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Levodopa-carbidopa should be taken on an empty stomach for optimal absorption. High-protein meals can interfere with absorption. The medication should not be stopped abruptly. Doubling a missed dose can cause adverse effects.

Question 48

Which finding is a late sign of Alzheimer's disease?

• A. Mild forgetfulness
• B. Loss of ability to perform activities of daily living (ADLs)
• C. Occasional word-finding difficulty
• D. Misplacing items

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Loss of ability to perform ADLs is a late-stage sign of Alzheimer's disease. Mild forgetfulness, occasional word-finding difficulty, and misplacing items are early signs.

Question 49

A patient with a traumatic brain injury is receiving mannitol. Which assessment finding indicates a therapeutic response?

• A. Increased urine output
• B. Decreased urine output
• C. Increased intracranial pressure
• D. Decreased serum osmolality

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that reduces intracranial pressure by drawing fluid into the vasculature and promoting diuresis. Increased urine output indicates a therapeutic response. Decreased urine output, increased ICP, and decreased serum osmolality are not therapeutic responses.

Question 50

Which patient is at highest risk for falls?

• A. A 30-year-old with a fractured arm
• B. A 75-year-old taking multiple medications and with a history of falls
• C. A 45-year-old with hypertension
• D. A 60-year-old with diabetes

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Advanced age, polypharmacy, and a history of falls are major risk factors for falls. The 75-year-old patient has the highest risk. The other patients have isolated risk factors but not the combination of age, polypharmacy, and fall history.

Continue Your OSSSC Nursing Officer 2026 Exam Preparation

Ready for more practice? Strengthen your knowledge with these related resources on our blog:

• Free Online Mock Test 01 for Nursing Officer Exam : Test your overall nursing knowledge with this full-length mock exam.
• RRB Staff Nurse Practice Test : Practice questions specifically designed for railway staff nurse recruitment exams.
• Medical-Surgical Nursing MCQs Part I : The original 25-question quiz that started this series.
• Medical-Surgical Nursing MCQs Part II : Additional practice questions covering more advanced topics.
• All Nursing Jobs 4U  : Stay updated with the latest staff nurse vacancies, exam notifications, and study resources.

Final Tips for OSSSC Nursing Officer 2026 Exam Success

Mastering medical-surgical nursing requires a strong foundation in pathophysiology, pharmacology, and the nursing process. Use these 50 MCQs as a diagnostic tool to identify weak areas, then review the rationales carefully. Focus on understanding why the correct answer is right and why the distractors are wrong - this critical-thinking approach is essential for the OSSSC Nursing Officer exam and other licensure tests.

For more nursing exam questions and study guides, explore our full collection of nursing practice tests. Bookmark this page and return regularly for updated content aligned with the latest clinical guidelines.