AIIMS NORCET 11 Mock Test: 25 Fundamental MCQs

🩺 NORCET‑11 Practice Quiz

25 multiple‑choice questions · Nursing fundamentals · Clinical reasoning 

📋 How to use: Read each stem carefully, select the best answer, then check your responses against the Answer Key at the bottom. Each correct choice carries +1 mark; there is no negative marking in this practice quiz.

Q1

A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed metformin. Which of the following is the most important nursing consideration regarding this medication?

A. Administer with a high‑fat meal to enhance absorption B. Monitor for signs of lactic acidosis, especially in renal impairment C. Hold the dose if the patient’s blood glucose is below 200 mg/dL D. Administer insulin concurrently to prevent hypoglycaemia

✔ Metformin carries a risk of lactic acidosis in patients with renal dysfunction; renal function should be monitored.

Q2

A nurse is caring for a postoperative patient who develops sudden chest pain, dyspnoea, and tachycardia. Which condition should the nurse suspect first?

A. Atelectasis B. Pneumothorax C. Pulmonary embolism D. Myocardial infarction

✔ Postoperative chest pain, dyspnoea, and tachycardia are classic signs of pulmonary embolism (PE) – a medical emergency.

Q3

Which of the following is the most reliable indicator of fluid volume deficit in an adult patient?

A. Dry mucous membranes B. Decreased skin turgor C. Orthostatic hypotension (drop in systolic BP ≥20 mmHg) D. Thirst

✔ Orthostatic changes in blood pressure and heart rate are objective, early signs of volume depletion.

Q4

A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which action is most critical to prevent a transfusion reaction?

A. Warm the blood to body temperature before infusion B. Verify patient identity and blood product with two‐person check C. Infuse the blood over 2 hours regardless of volume D. Pre‑medicate with diphenhydramine for all patients

✔ The two‑person verification of patient identity and blood product is the single most important safety step.

Q5

A patient on warfarin therapy has an INR of 5.2. Which nursing action is the highest priority?

A. Administer vitamin K orally as prescribed B. Hold the next dose of warfarin and notify the provider C. Assess the patient for signs of bleeding (haematuria, bruising, petechiae) D. Increase the dose to lower the INR more rapidly

✔ An INR >5.0 significantly increases bleeding risk; immediate assessment for haemorrhage is the priority.

Q6

A primigravida at 38 weeks gestation presents with contractions every 5 minutes. The fetal heart rate is 140 bpm with moderate variability. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

A. Administer tocolytic therapy B. Prepare for immediate Caesarean section C. Continue to monitor and support the progress of labour D. Assess cervical dilation and effacement

✔ In a term patient with regular contractions and a reassuring FHR, the priority is to determine labour progress via cervical assessment.

Q7

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient with heart failure. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A. “I will weigh myself every morning after urinating.” B. “I will limit my sodium intake to less than 2 g per day.” C. “I can stop my diuretic if I feel short of breath.” D. “I will notify my doctor if I gain more than 2–3 pounds in a day.”

✔ Stopping diuretics when symptomatic is dangerous; they should never be discontinued without provider guidance.

Q8

Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with stage 2 pressure ulcer on the sacrum?

A. Apply a dry sterile dressing and change every 24 hours B. Cleanse with normal saline and apply a moisture‑retentive dressing C. Massage the area around the ulcer to promote circulation D. Position the patient prone to relieve pressure

✔ Stage 2 ulcers require moist wound healing; saline cleansing + hydrocolloid / foam dressing is standard.

Q9

A patient is receiving digoxin for heart failure. Which electrolyte imbalance would most predispose this patient to digoxin toxicity?

A. Hyperkalaemia B. Hypokalaemia C. Hypernatraemia D. Hyponatraemia

✔ Hypokalaemia increases the binding of digoxin to cardiac sodium‑potassium pumps, precipitating toxicity.

Q10

A nurse is performing a neurological assessment on a patient who had a stroke. The patient can understand spoken language but cannot produce coherent speech. This finding is most consistent with:

A. Wernicke’s aphasia B. Broca’s aphasia C. Global aphasia D. Dysarthria

✔ Broca’s (expressive) aphasia is characterised by intact comprehension but difficulty producing speech.

Q11

A patient with chronic kidney disease has a serum creatinine of 4.2 mg/dL and a potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?

A. Oral sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) B. Emergency haemodialysis C. Intravenous calcium gluconate D. Restrict dietary potassium and recheck in 24 hours

✔ A potassium of 6.8 with advanced CKD is life‑threatening; emergency dialysis is the definitive treatment.

Q12

A nurse is caring for a patient with a nasogastric (NG) tube for gastric decompression. Which assessment finding should be reported immediately?

A. Greenish gastric aspirate B. Coffee‑ground emesis or aspirate C. Intermittent low‑grade fever D. Absent bowel sounds

✔ Coffee‑ground material indicates upper GI bleeding and requires immediate notification.

Q13

Which of the following is the most effective way to prevent ventilator‑associated pneumonia (VAP)?

A. Elevation of the head of the bed to 30–45° B. Daily change of the ventilator circuit C. Suctioning the endotracheal tube every 2 hours D. Routine use of systemic antibiotics

✔ Head‑of‑bed elevation reduces aspiration risk – a cornerstone VAP prevention bundle element.

Q14

A nurse is assessing a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which finding is most characteristic of this condition?

A. Blood glucose of 180 mg/dL and pH 7.38 B. Kussmaul respirations and fruity‑odoured breath C. Polyuria and polydipsia with normal serum osmolarity D. Hypotension and bradycardia

✔ Kussmaul respirations and acetone breath are classic signs of metabolic acidosis in DKA.

Q15

A patient is prescribed 1,000 mL of normal saline over 8 hours. The drip factor is 15 drops/mL. What is the correct flow rate in drops per minute?

A. 21 gtt/min B. 31 gtt/min C. 42 gtt/min D. 50 gtt/min

✔ Formula: (1000 mL × 15) ÷ (8 × 60) = 15000 ÷ 480 = 31.25 → 31 gtt/min.

Q16

A nurse is providing education to a patient with asthma about using a metered‑dose inhaler (MDI). Which step is essential for proper technique?

A. Exhale fully before placing the mouthpiece in the mouth B. Inhale rapidly and deeply immediately after actuation C. Hold the breath for 1 second after inhalation D. Shake the inhaler gently once before each use

✔ Full exhalation prior to inhalation ensures optimal lung deposition; breath‑hold should be 5–10 seconds.

Q17

A patient with cirrhosis presents with ascites and peripheral oedema. Which dietary modification is most appropriate?

A. High‑protein, high‑sodium diet B. Fluid restriction to 500 mL/day C. Sodium‑restricted diet (≤2 g/day) with moderate protein D. High‑carbohydrate, fat‑restricted diet

✔ Sodium restriction reduces fluid accumulation; protein should be adequate to prevent muscle wasting.

Q18

A nurse is caring for a patient who is 24 hours post‑thyroidectomy. Which sign would suggest hypocalcaemia?

A. Chvostek’s sign (facial twitching when tapping the facial nerve) B. Trousseau’s sign with BP cuff inflation C. Positive Babinski reflex D. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes

✔ Chvostek’s and Trousseau’s are both signs of hypocalcaemia; Chvostek’s is elicited by tapping the facial nerve.

Q19

Which of the following is a priority nursing intervention for a patient with acute pancreatitis?

A. Maintain NPO status and provide IV fluids B. Encourage high‑fat meals to stimulate digestive enzymes C. Place the patient in a supine position to reduce pain D. Administer oral pancreatic enzyme supplements

✔ Resting the pancreas (NPO + IV hydration) is the cornerstone of acute pancreatitis management.

Q20

A nurse is assessing a patient’s pain using the PQRST method. The “R” in PQRST stands for:

A. Region / Radiation B. Relief / Aggravating factors C. Rate of onset D. Relationship to activity

✔ PQRST: Provocation, Quality, Region/Radiation, Severity, Timing.

Q21

A patient with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted with confusion, ataxia, and nystagmus. Which vitamin deficiency is most likely?

A. Vitamin B₆ (Pyridoxine) B. Vitamin B₁₂ (Cobalamin) C. Vitamin B₁ (Thiamine) D. Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid)

✔ The triad of confusion, ataxia, and nystagmus is Wernicke’s encephalopathy – caused by thiamine deficiency.

Q22

A nurse is preparing a patient for a colonoscopy. Which preparation instruction is correct?

A. Clear liquid diet for 24 hours prior, with a prescribed bowel preparation solution B. Full meal up to 6 hours before the procedure C. Take all oral medications with milk on the day of procedure D. Drink orange juice to maintain glucose levels

✔ Clear liquids and bowel prep are standard for colonoscopy; coloured liquids (orange juice) are usually restricted.

Q23

A patient is receiving morphine via patient‑controlled analgesia (PCA). Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention?

A. The patient reports pain as 3 on a scale of 0–10 B. The patient’s respiratory rate is 8 breaths/min C. The patient is somnolent but easily arousable D. The patient’s oxygen saturation is 92%

✔ A respiratory rate of 8 is a sign of opioid‑induced respiratory depression – the priority intervention is to stimulate and consider naloxone.

Q24

A nurse is performing hand hygiene. Which of the following is the minimum recommended duration for washing with soap and water?

A. 5 seconds B. 15–20 seconds C. 30–40 seconds D. 1 minute

✔ CDC and WHO recommend 15–20 seconds of vigorous rubbing with soap and water.

Q25

A patient with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. Which baseline assessment is essential before starting therapy?

A. Electrocardiogram (ECG) B. Renal function tests (BUN, creatinine) and thyroid function C. Liver function tests (ALT, AST) D. Serum glucose and HbA1c

✔ Lithium is excreted renally and can cause thyroid dysfunction; baseline renal and thyroid function are mandatory.

📌 Answer Key

Q1 – B

Q2 – C

Q3 – C

Q4 – B

Q5 – C

Q6 – D

Q7 – C

Q8 – B

Q9 – B

Q10 – B

Q11 – B

Q12 – B

Q13 – A

Q14 – B

Q15 – B

Q16 – A

Q17 – C

Q18 – A

Q19 – A

Q20 – A

Q21 – C

Q22 – A

Q23 – B

Q24 – B

Q25 – B

📖 How to use this quiz & interpret your score

• Self‑assessment: Attempt all 25 questions without referring to the answer key. Select the option you believe is most clinically appropriate.
• Scoring: Give yourself +1 mark for every correct answer. There is no negative marking – this is a learning tool.
• Interpretation:
  • 23–25 correct: Excellent – you have a strong command of nursing fundamentals.
  • 18–22 correct: Good – review the topics you missed to reinforce your knowledge.
  • <18 correct: Focused revision needed – use the answer key to identify weak areas and revisit core concepts.
• Review: After checking your score, read the aria-describedby hints under each question to understand the clinical reasoning behind the correct answer.
• Keep practising: Consistent quizzing is one of the most effective ways to solidify your preparation for NORCET‑11 and other nursing competitive exams.

© NORCET‑11 Practice Quiz · For educational & self‑assessment purposes only.