Section A - Fundamentals, Anatomy, Pharmacology, Medical-Surgical, Obs & Paediatrics (Q1–Q35)

1. Q1. The process of washing hands before and after patient care is known as?
   A. Hand asepsis
   B. Hand disinfection
   C. Surgical scrub
   D. Sanitization
2. Q2. Normal body temperature in Celsius is:
   A. 36.5°C
   B. 34.5°C
   C. 39°C
   D. 37.5°C
3. Q3. Which pulse site is commonly used in emergencies?
   A. Radial
   B. Brachial
   C. Carotid
   D. Temporal
4. Q4. The normal respiratory rate for adults per minute is:
   A. 10–12
   B. 12–20
   C. 20–25
   D. 25–30
5. Q5. Fowler’s position is used to:
   A. Promote drainage
   B. Improve breathing
   C. Prevent bedsores
   D. Reduce fever
6. Q6. The largest organ in the human body is:
   A. Liver
   B. Skin
   C. Brain
   D. Heart
7. Q7. The functional unit of the kidney is called:
   A. Nephron
   B. Neuron
   C. Glomerulus
   D. Ureter
8. Q8. The heart is enclosed within:
   A. Pleura
   B. Pericardium
   C. Peritoneum
   D. Endocardium
9. Q9. The normal cardiac output per minute is approximately:
   A. 2 L
   B. 5 L
   C. 8 L
   D. 10 L
10. Q10. The part of the brain responsible for balance and coordination is:
    A. Cerebrum
    B. Cerebellum
    C. Medulla
    D. Pons
11. Q11. Drug that reduces pain is called:
    A. Analgesic
    B. Antipyretic
    C. Antacid
    D. Antihistamine
12. Q12. Digoxin is used in the treatment of:
    A. Hypertension
    B. Heart failure
    C. Asthma
    D. Diabetes
13. Q13. Vitamin K is essential for:
    A. Bone growth
    B. Blood clotting
    C. Vision
    D. Digestion
14. Q14. The route of drug administration with the fastest effect is:
    A. Oral
    B. Subcutaneous
    C. Intravenous
    D. Intramuscular
15. Q15. The antidote for morphine poisoning is:
    A. Naloxone
    B. Atropine
    C. Diazepam
    D. Adrenaline
16. Q16. The normal blood pressure range for adults is:
    A. 100/60 mmHg
    B. 120/80 mmHg
    C. 140/90 mmHg
    D. 160/100 mmHg
17. Q17. Appendicitis is inflammation of:
    A. Pancreas
    B. Appendix
    C. Liver
    D. Spleen
18. Q18. The first sign of hypoglycemia is:
    A. Tremors
    B. Coma
    C. Vomiting
    D. Dizziness
19. Q19. Common symptom of myocardial infarction is:
    A. Chest pain radiating to left arm
    B. Fever
    C. Cough
    D. Diarrhea
20. Q20. Normal blood glucose level (fasting) is:
    A. 60–100 mg/dl
    B. 100–160 mg/dl
    C. 40–80 mg/dl
    D. 160–200 mg/dl
21. Q21. The normal duration of pregnancy is:
    A. 36 weeks
    B. 40 weeks
    C. 42 weeks
    D. 38 weeks
22. Q22. The first stage of labor ends with:
    A. Full dilation of cervix
    B. Delivery of baby
    C. Placenta expulsion
    D. Rupture of membranes
23. Q23. Colostrum is rich in:
    A. Fat
    B. Antibodies
    C. Iron
    D. Calcium
24. Q24. Average fetal heart rate per minute is:
    A. 80–100
    B. 110–160
    C. 60–80
    D. 160–200
25. Q25. Best position for pregnant women with hypertension is:
    A. Supine
    B. Lateral
    C. Prone
    D. Sitting
26. Q26. The first vaccine given to a newborn is:
    A. Polio
    B. BCG
    C. DPT
    D. Measles
27. Q27. The weight of a healthy newborn is:
    A. 1.5–2 kg
    B. 2.5–3.5 kg
    C. 4–5 kg
    D. 3.5–4.5 kg
28. Q28. The APGAR score is taken at:
    A. 1 and 5 minutes
    B. 5 and 10 minutes
    C. 1 and 10 minutes
    D. 2 and 5 minutes
29. Q29. The first tooth appears at:
    A. 2 months
    B. 6 months
    C. 10 months
    D. 1 year
30. Q30. Exclusive breastfeeding is recommended for:
    A. 4 months
    B. 6 months
    C. 8 months
    D. 12 months
31. Q31. The full form of PHC is:
    A. Primary Health Centre
    B. Public Health Clinic
    C. Preventive Health Centre
    D. Private Health Care
32. Q32. The normal growth chart used in India is called:
    A. Gomez chart
    B. ICMR chart
    C. CDC chart
    D. WHO chart
33. Q33. Vitamin A deficiency causes:
    A. Night blindness
    B. Rickets
    C. Scurvy
    D. Beriberi
34. Q34. DOTS strategy is related to:
    A. Malaria
    B. Tuberculosis
    C. HIV/AIDS
    D. Typhoid
35. Q35. Pulse Polio Programme was launched in:
    A. 1992
    B. 1995
    C. 1998
    D. 2000

Section B - Advanced & High-Yield Topics (Q36–Q100)

36. Q36. Standard precaution that prevents blood-borne infection transmission is:
    A. Glove use
    B. Mask use
    C. Hand hygiene
    D. Gown use
37. Q37. Normal hemoglobin range for adult female (g/dL) is approximately:
    A. 12–16
    B. 8–10
    C. 10–11
    D. 17–19
38. Q38. The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses:
    A. Pain only
    B. Consciousness level
    C. Respiratory rate
    D. Blood pressure
39. Q39. Best method to prevent pressure ulcers is:
    A. Frequent repositioning
    B. High protein diet alone
    C. Topical antiseptics
    D. Bed rest
40. Q40. Aseptic technique is essential for:
    A. IV cannula insertion
    B. Bed making
    C. General cleanliness
    D. Meal serving
41. Q41. Normal serum sodium level (mEq/L) is approximately:
    A. 120–125
    B. 135–145
    C. 150–160
    D. 100–110
42. Q42. Shock presenting with warm extremities and bounding pulses is most likely:
    A. Hypovolemic
    B. Cardiogenic
    C. Septic
    D. Neurogenic
43. Q43. The drug class that lowers cholesterol by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase is:
    A. Beta blockers
    B. Statins
    C. ACE inhibitors
    D. Diuretics
44. Q44. Which is a sign of hypovolemic shock?
    A. Bradycardia
    B. Narrow pulse pressure
    C. Wide pulse pressure
    D. Bound pulses
45. Q45. First action for a choking adult with severe airway obstruction is:
    A. Abdominal thrusts (Heimlich)
    B. Back blows
    C. Encourage coughing
    D. Give water
46. Q46. A sterile field is considered contaminated if:
    A. A non-sterile item touches it
    B. It remains uncovered
    C. It gets wet
    D. All of the above
47. Q47. Antiseptic commonly used for skin preparation before injection is:
    A. Iodine/Alcohol
    B. Bleach
    C. Soap only
    D. Vinegar
48. Q48. The normal platelet count (per microliter) is approximately:
    A. 150,000–450,000
    B. 50,000–100,000
    C. 10,000–20,000
    D. 500,000–1,000,000
49. Q49. Ryles tube is used for:
    A. Urine drainage
    B. Gastric decompression / feeding
    C. Airway suctioning
    D. IV medication
50. Q50. Preferred site for intramuscular injection in adults is:
    A. Dorsogluteal
    B. Ventrogluteal
    C. Deltoid
    D. Vastus lateralis
51. Q51. TB is primarily spread by:
    A. Blood
    B. Airborne droplets
    C. Fecal-oral route
    D. Vector-borne
52. Q52. The enzyme elevated in acute myocardial infarction is:
    A. Amylase
    B. CK-MB
    C. ALT
    D. Alkaline phosphatase
53. Q53. A sign of hypokalemia includes:
    A. Muscle weakness
    B. Bradycardia
    C. Constipation
    D. All of the above
54. Q54. Best immediate care for deep partial-thickness burn is:
    A. Apply ice
    B. Cool with running water
    C. Apply butter
    D. Do nothing
55. Q55. The most common site for pressure ulcer in supine patient is:
    A. Heels
    B. Occiput
    C. Sacrum
    D. Elbows
56. Q56. The correct order for CPR (adults) is:
    A. Airway-Breathing-Circulation
    B. Circulation-Airway-Breathing
    C. Breathing-Airway-Circulation
    D. Airway-Circulation-Breathing
57. Q57. NGT placement is confirmed by:
    A. Auscultation only
    B. Aspirate gastric contents and pH check
    C. Patient says it's okay
    D. Visual inspection only
58. Q58. The recommended IV fluid for initial resuscitation in hypovolemic shock is:
    A. Dextrose 5% alone
    B. Normal saline (0.9% NaCl)
    C. Ringer's lactate
    D. Half-normal saline
59. Q59. Which vitamin deficiency causes scurvy?
    A. Vitamin A
    B. Vitamin C
    C. Vitamin D
    D. Vitamin K
60. Q60. The most reliable sign of dehydration in infants is:
    A. Dry lips
    B. Sunken fontanelle
    C. Reduced urine output
    D. Crying without tears
61. Q61. The antidote for acetaminophen (paracetamol) overdose is:
    A. Naloxone
    B. N-acetylcysteine
    C. Atropine
    D. Flumazenil
62. Q62. In case of needlestick injury, first action is:
    A. Squeeze wound and wash with soap & water
    B. Bandage and ignore
    C. Apply antiseptic only
    D. Immediately start antibiotics
63. Q63. Food recommended for iron absorption is high in:
    A. Vitamin C
    B. Vitamin A
    C. Vitamin D
    D. Vitamin K
64. Q64. The best glucose source for unconscious hypoglycemic patient is:
    A. Oral sugar
    B. IV dextrose
    C. Glucose gel orally
    D. Fruit juice
65. Q65. Oxygen therapy in COPD should be:
    A. High flow to normalize saturation
    B. Titrated to 88–92% saturation
    C. Not given
    D. Given only during sleep
66. Q66. Common cause of nosocomial UTI is:
    A. Catheterization
    B. Poor diet
    C. Antibiotics
    D. Bed rest
67. Q67. Normal respiratory rate for neonate is approximately:
    A. 30–60 /min
    B. 10–20 /min
    C. 20–30 /min
    D. 60–80 /min
68. Q68. Proper storage temperature for vaccines is usually:
    A. -20°C
    B. 2–8°C
    C. Room temperature
    D. 10–15°C
69. Q69. Pain scale most used in children is:
    A. VAS (visual analog)
    B. FLACC scale
    C. Numeric 0–10
    D. Wong-Baker faces
70. Q70. Best prevention for spread of influenza is:
    A. Antibiotics
    B. Annual vaccination
    C. Vitamin C supplements
    D. Wearing gloves
71. Q71. The most common electrolyte disturbance in vomiting is:
    A. Metabolic acidosis
    B. Metabolic alkalosis
    C. Respiratory acidosis
    D. Hypokalemia
72. Q72. Preferred hand hygiene method when hands not visibly soiled is:
    A. Soap and water
    B. Alcohol-based hand rub
    C. Gloves only
    D. Antiseptic spray
73. Q73. Correct storage for insulin vials is:
    A. Room temperature indefinitely
    B. Refrigerated when not in use
    C. Frozen
    D. Exposed to sunlight
74. Q74. Who supervises nursing ethics and professional conduct?
    A. Nursing Council
    B. Employer only
    C. Police
    D. Family members
75. Q75. Aseptic technique for wound dressing includes:
    A. Hand hygiene and sterile gloves
    B. Sharing instruments
    C. Touching wound with ungloved hands
    D. Reusing dressings
76. Q76. Most reliable indicator of adequate oxygenation is:
    A. Pulse oximetry
    B. ABG (arterial blood gas)
    C. Respiratory rate
    D. Skin color
77. Q77. When documenting, the best practice is to:
    A. Use abbreviations liberally
    B. Be clear, objective and timely
    C. Write opinions as facts
    D. Delay documentation
78. Q78. Preferred site for IM injection in infants is:
    A. Deltoid
    B. Vastus lateralis
    C. Gluteal
    D. Forearm
79. Q79. The normal fasting blood glucose cutoff for diabetes diagnosis (mg/dL) is:
    A. ≥126
    B. ≥100
    C. ≥140
    D. ≥200
80. Q80. Seizure first aid includes:
    A. Place object in mouth
    B. Cushion head and turn to side
    C. Restrain limbs forcefully
    D. Give water immediately
81. Q81. Best method to prevent catheter-associated UTI is:
    A. Prophylactic antibiotics
    B. Aseptic insertion and early removal
    C. Change catheter daily
    D. Irrigate catheter routinely
82. Q82. The most common cause of hospital-acquired pneumonia is:
    A. S. aureus
    B. Gram-negative bacilli
    C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    D. Viral agents
83. Q83. A Glasgow coma scale score of 15 indicates:
    A. Deep coma
    B. Moderate impairment
    C. Normal fully alert
    D. Brain dead
84. Q84. For suspected stroke, the priority is:
    A. CT scan
    B. Start thrombolysis without imaging
    C. Give aspirin immediately
    D. Observe only
85. Q85. Appropriate PPE when caring for pulmonary TB patient is:
    A. Surgical mask
    B. N95 respirator
    C. Cloth mask
    D. No mask
86. Q86. Most accurate way to measure core body temperature is:
    A. Oral
    B. Rectal
    C. Axillary
    D. Tympanic
87. Q87. A common side effect of opioid analgesics is:
    A. Diarrhea
    B. Constipation
    C. Insomnia
    D. Tachycardia
88. Q88. The chain of infection includes reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry and:
    A. Susceptible host
    B. Vector only
    C. Environment
    D. Surface contamination
89. Q89. The correct angle for subcutaneous injection is:
    A. 15°
    B. 45°
    C. 90°
    D. 30°
90. Q90. Position for lumbar puncture is:
    A. Sitting with flexed spine
    B. Lateral decubitus, knees to chest
    C. Prone
    D. Supine
91. Q91. Best test to confirm diabetes is:
    A. Random glucose
    B. HbA1c
    C. Urine sugar
    D. Fasting glucose only
92. Q92. Eye drops administration for glaucoma should be timed at least how long between different eye drops?
    A. 1 minute
    B. 5 minutes
    C. 30 minutes
    D. 60 minutes
93. Q93. Most effective contraception method for preventing pregnancy is:
    A. Condoms
    B. Intrauterine device (IUD)
    C. Sterilization
    D. Oral pills
94. Q94. A common sign of wound infection is:
    A. Reduced pain
    B. Erythema and purulent discharge
    C. Skin dryness
    D. Improved function
95. Q95. Most appropriate nursing response to patient with chest pain is:
    A. Ignore and chart later
    B. Assess immediately and call for physician
    C. Give food
    D. Turn patient
96. Q96. Which organ is mainly affected by hepatitis B?
    A. Kidney
    B. Liver
    C. Heart
    D. Lung
97. Q97. The most common bacteria causing surgical site infection is:
    A. E. coli
    B. S. aureus
    C. Pseudomonas
    D. Enterococcus
98. Q98. In case of suspected opioid overdose, check for:
    A. Pinpoint pupils and respiratory depression
    B. Dilated pupils and hypertension
    C. Rash and fever
    D. Jaundice
99. Q99. The ideal time to perform hand hygiene in patient care is:
    A. Before touching a patient
    B. After touching a patient
    C. Before aseptic procedure
    D. All of the above
100. Q100. The best immediate action for anaphylaxis is:
     A. Give oral antihistamine
     B. IM epinephrine (adrenaline) and call for help
     C. Wait and observe
     D. Apply cold compress